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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

15.06.2025 13:06

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

How often do you watch the news on TV?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

I took a video of my serve (60 FPS) and it took 0.4 seconds from my racket to the service line. How fast would you say my serve was?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Do you think Christine Lagarde will be headed and will be heading for success in the next French presidential elections starting as soon as 2027?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.